Was the Reformer Martin Luther innovating or an error when he added the word alone to Romans 328

for we hold that one is justified by faith alone apart from works of the law?

Find out in Pastor Will Whedon's column in the latest issues etc. journal.

In the Wittenburg Trail feature, Dr. Donna Harrison details her journey to confessional

Lutheranism from Catholicism, Scientism, Mysticism, and Evangelicalism.

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So here is the passage in question.

It is the first chapter of Romans, verse 32. Paul is smack dab in the middle of a very long

argument, very long statement. He's working in stages, and here at verse 32, he says,

though they know God's righteous decree, that those who practice such things deserve to die,

they not only do them, but give approval to those who practice them.

Now somewhere in the previous verses, Paul has mentioned homosexuality. He describes it in

rather graphic terms, in fact. So does this apply to homosexuality and homosexuality alone?

What about the other sins that Paul mentions there? And how do we take this if

those other sins include sins that we do? Remember the word, say, those who do these things

deserve to die. Welcome back to issues etc. I'm Todd. Welcome joining us to answer the question

does God command the killing of homosexuals in Romans 132, Dr. Mike Middendorf, Professor of

Theology at Concordia University, Irvine, California, author of the Concordia commentaries

on Romans. Mike, welcome back. Thank you. Good to be here, Todd.

Why did God command the death penalty for homosexual acts in ancient Israel?

Yeah, thanks. That's a tough question to ask why of God.

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