Good morning and welcome back to a new week on the podcast to week number 499 in our

history.

It's amazing.

We start week 499 with a question from a listener named Elizabeth who has an interesting

question about the saving work of Christ.

Hi, Pastor John.

I am studying first Peter going through your lab videos and digging deeper to share with

my fellow stay at home moms at church.

My question pertains to who toss the Greek word in first Peter 111 translated subsequent.

I'm trying to tie together the sufferings of Christ and his subsequent glories does not

seem to simply refer to a chronological progression.

Peter very often ties suffering and glory together first Peter one versus six to seven and

verse 10 chapter 2 verse 12 chapter 3 verse 9 and 14 chapter 4 verses 12 the 15 chapter

5 1 and verse 10 of chapter 5.

So here's my question.

Did Jesus have to suffer in public for God to give him those glories?

Couldn't Jesus have lived a perfect law abiding substitutionary life for us in total isolation

or at least in obscurity?

I know he underwent his formal temptations alone so he could have died serenely then risen

and defeated death and sin but not by suffering in public.

Or if he had done this, would he not have received the subsequent glories?

Was it required for him to suffer publicly and to die early?

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