And from Hattiesburg, Mississippi, right to ask this, Pastor John, if Jesus is infinitely

satisfied in the fellowship of the Trinity with perfect joy, in what sense do he endure

the cross for the joy set before him?

How could his joy be increased if he was perfectly satisfied already?

I don't know if Anne realizes what a massive question she's asking.

I mean, there are philosophical names for this kind of question that she wouldn't even recognize.

So, let me, it is an excellent question.

It's not quirky, it's not new, it's part of a bigger issue.

For example, if God was perfectly happy in the fellowship of the Trinity from all eternity,

what motive would there have been to create the world?

That's one of the ways this question is asked.

Was there joy in creating the world?

If so, was God deficient before he actualized that joy in creating the world?

Or if God can get angry at Israel, which he does, and threatens to wipe her out,

and Moses intervenes, and God relents, was his joy in Israel constant through that?

Or did it go up and down?

And if his joy goes up and down, how can we talk about him being consistently and perfectly,

and all satisfyingly happy?

Or what does it mean in Psalm 115, verse three,

our God is in the heavens, he does all that he pleases.

Or Isaiah 46, 9 and 10, I am God, there is no other I am God, and there is none like me saying,

my counsel will stand, I will accomplish all my good pleasure,

...