Jesus was tempted in every way as we are tempted, and he didn't sin, not once.

And our whole salvation rides on his perfection.

But does this mean that Jesus was tempted by evil desires inside of himself like we are?

It's a sharp question to ask, even if it's an uncomfortable one to ask.

Here it is. Hi, Pastor John. My name is Sophie, and I live in Sydney, Australia.

I'm grappling with a question about temptation and sin.

In James 114, it says people are tempted by their own desires, which lead to sin.

This seems to create a clear distinction between temptation, evil desires, and actual sin.

However, I'm struggling to reconcile this with Hebrews 415, which states that Jesus was tempted

in every way as we are, but did not sin.

If James 114 connects temptation with evil desires

within us, how can I understand this in light of Hebrews 415? It doesn't seem right to say that

Jesus had evil desires. Yet these passages seem to contradict each other. How can I fit these

two verses together and

understand how Jesus could be tempted in all the ways that we are and yet remain sinless?

Okay, here are the basic facts from the Bible that need to be put together in a coherent way.

First, the Greek word translated test and the Greek word translated

temped are exactly the same word in Greek. Perasmos, the noun, peradozo, the verb. That's the first

observation. It's really significant. Second, God tests us. Hebrews 1117. He tested Abraham. He tests us. And he invites us to test him by trusting him. Test me, prove me. And I'll pour out blessings on you, Malachi 310. Third, but God cannot be tempted, according to James 113.

And he himself tempts no one according to that same verse.

Let no one say when he is tempted, I am tempted by God, for God cannot be tempted with evil, and he himself tempts no one.

Fourth observation, yet, Christ was tempted.

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