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🗓️ 30 September 2024
⏱️ 20 minutes
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0:00.0 | Bill, we have some questions from all over the globe that come to the website, also from |
0:16.4 | Facebook. This one says, Dear Dr Craig, I've read you talk about the mistake of treating |
0:22.4 | nothing as a thing instead of not anything. |
0:27.0 | I've also read how you talk about Leibniz and how there is something rather than nothing. |
0:32.0 | And I looked up where Leibniz said this he says that he says what you say |
0:36.7 | But then right after he says nothing is simpler and easier than something is Leibniz making the same mistake of treating |
0:45.4 | nothing as something rather than not anything which you say is a problem? If he |
0:52.1 | does this count against his point? Thank you for your time. That's |
0:56.0 | Torin. I've puzzled myself about Leibniz's statement, Torin. It does sound like the mistake of treating nothing as a thing in saying |
1:07.5 | that it's simpler than something. |
1:10.9 | And yet it's hard to believe that someone that is the logical genius that Leibniz could be making such a fundamental mistake. |
1:19.0 | And so I wonder if we might interpret him in the following way. |
1:24.0 | Perhaps he's saying the hypothesis that nothing exists |
1:29.5 | is a simpler hypothesis than the hypothesis that something exists. |
1:36.7 | And the reason for that is that the hypothesis that something exists |
1:42.4 | comprises an infinity of other hypotheses. |
1:47.0 | Rabbits exist. |
1:49.0 | Mountains exist, planets exist, hay exists, and so on and so forth, whereas nothing exists is a simple |
2:00.0 | hypothesis that has nothing to it. So perhaps in that sense, Leibniz is saying that the hypothesis |
2:09.6 | that nothing exists is simpler than the hypothesis that something exists because the latter is |
2:18.1 | infinitely complex. That's a possibility. |
2:22.2 | This next question from Sweden. |
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