Happy Friday, everyone. I mentioned, uh, I think it was last year, last December, sometime

back in APJ 1720, that in our emails, the most asked about chapter of the Bible is Romans

9. And it's not even close, understandably so. The chapter raises a truckload of theology

questions. And within that chapter, Romans 9.22, verse 22, is the most mentioned text, the

most asked about verse in our entire inbox, uh, because that verse raises the difficult,

but necessary topic, a predestination and double predestination or reprobation, the divine

design of, quote, vessels of wrath prepaired for destruction, unquote, to sobering texts

to raising many questions, uh, relevant and important questions. We're not in that text

in particular today, but we are back on the theme of double predestination through a different

text in a question from a listener named Josh. Dear Pastor John, thank you for all your

resources for people like me seeking Bible answers. I have a question about 1 Timothy

24 and how it when read in context pertains to the doctrine of double predestination. To

me, double predestination seems a logical result of the doctrine of predestination, but

this verse seems to refute it. How do you double predestination and this verse hold up

together? Also, if addressing 1 Peter 2 8 would be applicable, I would appreciate that

as well. By understanding of one verse contradicts my understanding of the other, I know the Bible

is cohesive, but I'm unsure how to reconcile these texts. Yes, the Bible is cohesive. It

is coherent. It has integrity. But that's a good assumption to start with. 1 Timothy 24

has been perceived for centuries as a problem, not just for double predestination, but for

any predestination or any unconditional election of who will be saved. So let me say a word

about double predestination since it's brought up in the question and then show how I think

1 Timothy 24 is not a contradiction of predestination or double predestination. Predestination

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