Here is today's email question, Hello Pastor John, my name is Eli, I'm 21, and I'm from

Philly.

I have a question concerning God's sovereignty.

In the Bible, it seems like a couple of times we read where God makes someone sin for

the benefit of His chosen people.

For example, in Exodus 7, verses 1 to 5, where we see God telling Moses and Aaron, I

will harden Pharaoh's heart, and though I multiply my signs and wonders in the land of

Egypt, Pharaoh will not listen to you.

And Romans 9-18, it is affirmed by saying, so then he has mercy on whomever he wills,

and he hardens whomever he wills.

I've spoken to many Christian brothers, even ones who are far older than I am, who seem

to disagree with me, time and time again that God can in fact make someone sin, judge

them for it, and still be a righteous good God.

What I give from those conversations is that they are ultimately questioning God just

as Job did, that it's not about whether God can do it or not, it's whether they created

humans, feel like it's right or not right for God or creator to do such things with us.

So can God in fact make someone sin, judge them for it, and still be righteous, just, and

a good God?

The words that we use to describe God's causality, His causing in relation to evil, make

a really big difference in how people hear and respond to what the Bible teaches.

Words don't make the final difference, but they do matter.

Other things can hinder people from agreeing with what the Bible teaches besides just words,

...