Meisha R from Jamaica has the following question. She says, can you please elaborate on what is meant by still being morally obligated after a divorce?

Basically, this comes from my understanding of trying to combine and put together all of the statements in scripture on the topic of marriage and divorce.

You know, on one hand you could say, any divorce means you're totally free and now you could do whatever you want because every divorce is legitimate.

On the other hand you could say only legitimate reasons for divorce create divorce,

this would mean that a lot of people are actually still married, like they're still actually married even though they have

been together in 10 years, 20 years, they're still legally in God's eyes married.

But I think that neither of these options works well for us when you try to reconcile them with the statements of Jesus in scripture.

So let's look at what Jesus said.

Matthew 99 Jesus says, and I say to you, whoever divorces his wife except for sexual immorality and marries another commits adultery.

Now what's interesting is that Jesus does actually affirm the existence of the divorce.

He just affirms illegitimate grounds except for sexual

immorality.

We've talked about grounds in my whole series

on marriage and divorce.

But the point here is that he seems to acknowledge

the divorce is a real thing, but then goes on

to suggest that the person is still morally obligated that it's it was wrong for him to marry another he still committed adultery by marrying another

I think that this is a way of reconciling all of what Jesus says about the topic along with what other scriptures say about it.

I can give other support for this as well.

For instance the law of Moses it definitely recognized second even third marriages

and whether they were right or wrongly interred, it still recognize the

marriage is real. Now it may have been an immoral act to get in that marriage.

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