Has the word homosexual always been in the Bible? The answer is no. There is no Hebrew,

Aramaic or Greek word that should be rightly translated as homosexual.

I'm Preston Sprinkle, this is Theology Noreau. Hello friends welcome back to another episode of theology in the raw. I have been out of town for over a month or almost a month at least and have recently returned and I'm still battling a bit of jet lag.

But I wanted to talk about an article in this podcast

that's been kind of tossed around the internet and over the last few months. In fact, when I was out of town, I was actually out of the country, and I got quite a few emails from people wanting me to respond to an article, a blog that was written on March 21st, 2019.

And it might be a bit dated now.

You know how things go? There's an article that's written and you

know causes a lot of stir across the internet and then you wait a couple weeks and then nobody

really remembers it.

So I hope this response to this article is not too dated,

but I'm still getting a trickle of emails coming in

asking for my thoughts on this article.

So I do want to take some time in this podcast and address this article.

The title of the article is,

Has homosexual always been in the Bible and it's an interview of a guy by the

name of Ed Oxford at Oxford is a gay Christian who is for lack of better terms affirming and he was

interviewed about the translation of 1st Corinthians 6-9 in particular the Greek word Arsenauquitists.

And I originally recorded an entire podcast responding to several questions that were that was that were sent in from my

Patreon supporters and I recorded an entire podcast responded to to those questions, and one of the questions that was

sent in had to do with this article. And I ended up taking a long time addressing that last question about this article and I wasn't really

thrilled with the how I responded to the other questions and the whole podcast

just got kind of convoluted so I actually

...