Hey Dr. Craig, thank you for your defense of the Gospel and of the existence of God.

It has helped me defend what I believe so much.

Your resources on reasonable faith have helped me immensely as I went through an introductory

philosophy class where my professor was skeptical about God's existence.

I've been pondering on this question and can't find an answer.

Other religions and even some cults deny the deity of Christ like Jehovah's Witnesses.

I know that because of sin, we as humans are under God's wrath and are destined to

an eternal punishment away from God if we don't put our faith in Christ.

If Jesus was not divine, even though the Bible is clear He was, could Him then be a finite

created being satisfy the wrath of God if He was sinless but not divine?

I would love to be able to understand this because it would be helpful in witnessing

to people who deny the deity of Christ.

Thanks from Lewis.

This question about the efficacy of the atonement is one that is commonly discussed by Christian

theologians.

The burden of Saint Anselms, famous treatise, why God became man, is that no human being,

a sinless human being, could satisfy for the sins of humanity before God.

Christ had to be divine in order to satisfy the demands of divine justice.

I think that that's intuitively plausible when you think about it.

Think of all the sins committed by all the people in the history of the world, not only

past and present but future.

How could anyone satisfy the demands of God's justice unless He were a divine person and

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